Logo

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 12:46

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why does it seem that Quora's "moderators" base their moderations on personal beliefs and views by deleting answers that are only violating their personal feelings?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

If my heart stopped beating, would I have enough energy to walk out into the other room 20 ft away before I passed out and died?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What is your wildest experience in Bangalore that you haven’t told anyone?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.